I ran across this while doing some research on constitutional amendments. For a brief period of time, Texas required that only people who owned property could vote for bond elections:
- 1932 - 42nd R.S. HJR 26
- Click here for more.
For the amendment providing that only qualified electors owning taxable property in the State, county, district, political sub-division, city town or village where the election is held and which has been duly rendered for taxation shall be qualified to vote at elections held for the purpose of issuing bonds or otherwise lending credit or expending money or assuming debt therein.
The language was removed in 1999 due to its being declared obsolete. I'm not sure yet what made them obsolete.
- HJR 62, 76th R.S.
- Click here for the current language in Texas Election Code:
Sec. 3a. QUALIFICATIONS OF VOTERS IN LOCAL ELECTIONS REGARDING PUBLIC DEBTS OR EXPENDITURES.
When an election is held by any county, or any number of counties, or any political sub-division of the State, or any political sub-division of a county, or any defined district now or hereafter to be described and defined within the State and which may or may not include towns, villages or municipal corporations, or any city, town or village, for the purpose of issuing bonds or otherwise lending credit, or expending money or assuming any debt, only qualified voters of the State, county, political sub-division, district, city, town or village where such election is held shall be qualified to vote.
(Added Nov. 8, 1932; amended Nov. 2, 1999.) (TEMPORARY TRANSITION PROVISIONS for Sec. 3a: See Appendix, Note 1.)