Thanks to the student who brought this up in class.
Earlier I posted a story about a man indicted for premedidated murder of the drunk driver who killed two of his sons. He walked home to get his gun, walked back and shot the driver. This seems to have made it premedidated - though we need to follow this up with more detail.
Well what about the man who beat a guy to death who was sexually assaulting his young daughter? He was not indicted by a grand jury, so will not be tried for any criminal actions related to the attack.
So why did an Alvin grand jury indict the former man, but a Lavaca County grand jury not make an indictment in a similar case? Law enforcement in Texas is localized, so decisions made in one place are not necessarily made elsewhere.
This might come down to what "premeditation" means, but are there differences in the nature of grand juries in each locality. To stir the pot a bit more. The Alvin Grand Jury indicted a Latino man, while in Lavaca County, the man was Anglo, and in this case the accused attacker was Latino. Did that play a role?
